Real numbers are chosen in the following manner. A fair coin is flipped. If it lands heads, then it is flipped again and the chosen number is $0$ if the second flip is heads and $1$ if the second flip is tails. On the other hand, if the first coin flip is tails, then the number is chosen uniformly at random from the closed interval $[0,2]$. Two random numbers $x$ and $y$ are chosen independently in this manner. What is the probability that $|x-y|>1$?